You ask the question: “How to know if Jesus the man ever had sex with Mary Magdalene. Did he or did he not? “
A) This question arose mostly from Dan Brown’s polemic novel, The Da Vinci Code.
In his novel, he attempts to convince his readers that Jesus was actually married to Mary Magdalene. In fact, Brown even goes as far as declaring that Jesus and Mary M. had a child together. Well, I will presume that there are many ways to make money and being fake is his financial interest theory. A topic that will bring people to acquire his book at an over rated price… but then, Brown laughs all the way to the Bank.
The problem with writers with fake stories is that they present their fictions as being the “truth”. An apparent “truth” that was covered by the church for reasons of interest, apparently!
Many readers of the Da Vinci Code, believing in this fictional story in the novel, take the author’s words to be true. They are not.
The real truth is that the readers of this book, naively influenced about the possibility that Jesus was once married, were simply duped. It is of interest that in a recent survey conducted by the online Christian Belief.net site, almost one fifth (20%) of those surveyed said that Mary Magdalene was actually the legal wife of Jesus of Nazareth. Bullshnoodles to that fifth!!! But reality tells us that Jesus never married and here is why. It is true that the New Testament is silent on this subject as well as the apocryphal writings and the archaeological documents recognized as established scientific discoveries during the first centuries after the resurrection of Jesus of Nazareth. This issue is not mentioned. Yet, such silence does not make any other theories true. So, if there had been such a marriage, we would find references to it in several places. After all, this topic is of great importance. On the other hand, what is written about the family of Jesus is clearly explained. The Scriptures names his mother, his (adopted) earthly father, his half-brothers, his half-sisters (not by name but by logical utterances), his aunts and his uncles. Not all, but some of them. These are mentioned clearly… but “a” wife… never mentioned. That should make us pause, intellectually. The absence of such an important person demonstrates that Jesus remained unmarried all his life. Another author, William E. Phipps, claims that Jesus “had” to be married since at that time, a Jewish man of the age of Jesus and especially a Rabbi (teacher – what Jesus was), must be married – according to the Hebrew custom of the time.This thesis does not hold!
By the time Jesus lived, there was, in Israel, a group of Jewish religious males named the “Essenes” who were all celibate. Yet they too, were, in their own group, Rabbis. Some even suggest that John the Baptist had close ties to the Essenes by his way of dressing and according to his diet. And according to scientific archaeologists, there would have been about 4,000 Essenes in the time of Jesus. Thus, adult men and Rabbis who chose celibacy. Therefore, so much with Phipps. It’s “BS” (excuse my French). On top of that, the character of Jesus of Nazareth demonstrates that he was far from being a traditionalist. He was rather a revolutionary. Therefore, for Christ, not to follow the tradition of his time is clearly demonstrated numerous times in the gospels. In addition, there are two other sources of importance to consider. At the time of Jesus, there were historians. Two of whom remain illustrious and we will quote these only two. Philo and Josephus. These two historians maintained the celibacy of Jesus. Ref. i) Philo, Hypothetica 11.14-17 and ii) Josephus, (a) Jewish War, 2.8.2 and (b) Antiquities 18.1.5. So Dan Brown and William E. Phipps suggest that Jesus had sexual relations with Mary Magdalene, they promote the baseless idea of the social decorum of the time that forcibly forbids that a Jewish man “must” marry. According to Jewish customs, celibacy was condemned… but this comes from allegedly “false writers” rich in their fiction with a rich bank accounts but poor in biblical knowledge and integrity as human beings. In essence, these writers (including the movie with Tom Hanks having poor judgment in his acceptance of shitty scripts) are all false and morally lack genuine teachings. Period. Bad writers, an actor accepting bad sories, but all nicely loaded and flush with money while falsifying the Holy Scriptures.“So please, would the real Mary Magdalene stand up!”
Luke 8: 1-3 “Then Jesus went from town to town and from village to village, preaching the good news of the kingdom of God. The twelve were with him, with some women who had been cured of evil spirits and sicknesses: Mary, called Magdalene, from whom came seven demons, Jeanne, wife of Chuza, intendant of Herod, Susanne, and many others, who assisted him with their richness.” (Paraphrased)
“Near the cross of Jesus stood his mother and his mother’s sister, Mary, wife of Clopas, and Mary of Magdala. Jesus, seeing his mother, and with her the disciple whom he loved (John) said to his mother, “Woman, here is your son.” Then he said to the disciple, “Behold thy mother.” And from that moment the disciple took her home. After this, Jesus, who knew that everything was already completed, said, (in order that the Scripture may be fulfilled): I am thirsty. There was a vase full of vinegar there. The soldiers filled a sponge, and, having fixed it on a branch of hyssop, they approached it from his mouth. When Jesus took vinegar, he said, “All things are fulfilled.” And, bowing his head, he returned the spirit. “
Again no mention of any wife.
And it is of great importance that Jesus of Nazareth didn’t simply die out of torture or weakness. He remained in control for all his life. He decided when to “return the spirit” (or die) and he actually decided when to resurrect (just as the Father and the Spirit did – Google it).
“No one takes {my life} from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This charge I have received from my Father.”
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B) But your question, dear Micheline, was not related to the marriage of Jesus but whether he had sexual relations with Mary Magdalene.
Here is the more direct response:
1) According to the Bible, having sex before marriage is considered “Fornication“.
2) According to the Bible, fornication is a sin before God.
I know that our culture rejects this notion but no culture annuls nor contradicts the Divine edicts. It still remains a divine and a biblical truth.
Above all, in practice, during the time when Jesus was on earth, fornication was perceived as a serious offence against the God of Israel. You must therefore understand the context of the time of Jesus.
Now, read this:
John chapter 1: 1 – 14
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The Word was in the beginning with God. All things were made by the Word, and nothing that was done was done without it. In the Word is life, and life is the light of men. The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not received it. There was a man sent from God: his name was John (Baptist). He came to serve as a witness, to bear witness to the light, that all might believe by him. He was not the light, but it appeared to bear witness to the light. This light was the true light, which, by coming into the world, enlightens every man. The Word was in the world, and the world was made by it, and the world did not know it. The Word came to her own {Israel}, and they did not receive it. But to all who have received it, to those who believe in its name, it has given the power to become children of God, who are born not of the blood, of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of Man, but of God. And the Word was made flesh, and it dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; and we have beheld his glory, a glory as the glory of the only begotten of the Father.”
It is very clear that “the Word” is Jesus of Nazareth. He was God and never ceased to be God even though he was a man, a true man.
It is impossible for God to sin.
If the Son of God had a child, what kind of race would it have produced? So, no, Jesus never had sex with a woman. This should be evident now. I hope that answers your question. I love you. PhilippeRelated posts:
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From Philippe in answer to the following post.
Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God;” for God cannot be tempted by evil, and he himself does not tempt anyone. But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust (James 1:13,14).
Since God cannot be tempted to sin, Jesus could not sin.
Christ Has an Unchanging Nature
The Bible says that Christ is unchangeable.
Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever (Hebrews 13:8).
Jesus has never sinned.
1 Peter 2:22
WHO COMMITTED NO SIN, NOR WAS ANY DECEIT FOUND IN HIS MOUTH;
2 Corinthians 5:21
He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
Hebrews 4:15
For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.
Luke 1:35
The angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you, and for that reason, the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.
1 John 3:5
You know that He appeared in order to take away sins, and in Him, there is no sin.
Matthew 27:24
When Pilate saw that he was accomplishing nothing, but rather that a riot was starting, he took water and washed his hands in front of the crowd, saying, “I am innocent of this Man’s blood; see to that yourselves.”
John 19:4
Pilate came out again and said to them, “Behold, I am bringing Him out to you so that you may know that I find no guilt in Him.”
John 8:29
“And He who sent Me is with Me; He has not left Me alone, for I always do the things that are pleasing to Him.”
Isaiah 53:9
His grave was assigned with wicked men, Yet He was with a rich man in His death, Because He had done no violence, Nor was there any deceit in His mouth.
1 Peter 1:18-19
knowing that you were not redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers, but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ.
Philippe
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Linda’s wrong Post.
Facing the TRUTH about Jesus and Mary Magdalene will take the Christian to the next level. Some writers have distorted the truth about Jesus and Mary Magdalene’s relationship. And controversy about their relationship has existed from the beginning. Your arguments for the celibacy of Jesus are compelling for some Christians who just can’t imagine God ever sinning. Nothing is impossible for God. In relationships where one of the persons has all the power and creates all the rules, it is impossible for the ruler to ever break a rule. The ruler simply creates a new one. Let’s face the TRUTH. The LAW was causing people to sin. Something had to be done. The LAW made women submissive to their husbands and the Law allowed men to divorce their wives. The Law also allowed men to have many wives and concubines and to treat them horribly (Judges 19). That story shows how exceedingly bitter women could be treated. Christians believe Jesus came to show people a better way to treat women. Remaining celibate side steps the conflict and makes a liar out of John. John’s Gospel promotes the idea that Jesus is the Groom. You raise valid points about Jesus’ mother that I discuss in my thesis Mary Magdalene: Her image and relationship to Jesus http://www.lindavogtturner.ca/papers.html
Hello Carmel,
I will mention a few things relating to your post.
The beginning are extracts from you with my responses. Lower is your post in its integrity.
Philippe
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Carmel’s comments:
Carmel: Yes, Jesus had sexual relation with Mary Magdalene, but after His resurrection, when He was the sole sovereign over all,…
– Philippe – Ok let us stop right here. You suggest that our Lord became “the sole sovereign over all” after His resurrection.
While Jesus was undoubtedly fully human (1 Tim. 2:5; Heb. 2:14, 17; 1 Jn. 4:2), he was also fully God (Mk. 2:5-7; Jn. 1:1; 5:18; 8:58; 10:30; 20:28-29).
Also, Paul explains that Jesus «laid aside the use of his divine attributes» –not the attributes themselves (Phil. 2:6-7). Instead of using his own divine attributes, Jesus depended fully on the Spirit to perform his miracles (Jn. 5:19; Lk. 4:18; Rom. 8:11; Mt. 26:53). In fact, the Bible repeatedly points out that Jesus’ miracles were due to the empowering of the Holy Spirit –not Jesus’ own power (Lk. 5:17; Acts 2:22; Acts 10:38).
While he was on Earth, Jesus lacked the use of omniscience (Lk. 8:45; Mt. 24:36; Lk. 2:52), omnipotence (Mk. 6:5; Jn. 5:19), and omnipresence (Jn. 4:4). Cultists assume that Jesus could not have been God; otherwise, he would not lack these attributes. However, these passages make sense because Jesus gave up the use of his divine attributes, while he was on Earth.
So, we need to be clear: Jesus did not cease to have his divine attributes on Earth. Instead, he ceased to use these attributes…“
Source: http://www.evidenceunseen.com/bible-difficulties-2/nt-difficulties/1-2-thessalonians/phil-27-did-jesus-cease-to-be-god-on-earth/
– Philippe: You write: “…for the first ever time (after Resurrection), He possessed the exact flesh and blood body of sexually reproductive related humans…”
Well, you’re off here too, Carmel. HE was a perfect man before the cross (Read: https://okchrist.com/son/son-his-weakness/).
After HIS Resurrection, Christ had a Glorious Body and his blood had been shed entirely on the cross. After HE was pierced, all HIS blood was shed and then came water. (Read: John 19:34 Instead, one of the soldiers pierced Jesus’ side with a spear, bringing a sudden flow of blood and water).
The Glorious body of Christ is absent of blood.
Carmel adds: He simply toppled Satan’s own sinful process and implanted His own actual SEED, on earth, of His genuine first fruits, without any interference from Satan who was locked in hell till Pentecost.
– Philippe: You are wrong everywhere. Satan was not “…locked in hell till Pentecost…”. Hell remains empty to this day. Those who die today are sent to Hades (the Greek word) and Hades is divided into two parts. Paradise, in the Presence of God on one side and the pit of being suspended alone in the darkness, separated from God on the other side. An image of that is seen in Luke 16: 19-31.
• https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke+16%3A+19-31&version=NIV
Hell is empty and will start filling up only in Revelation 19 :20 “And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone.”
Revelation 20 :14 “And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death”.
I should also add that the Resurected and Glorified Jesus did not remain “until” Pentacost. HE assended 10 days before Pentacost.
Carmen continues that the “…kingdom on earth in every conception occurred on earth from Jesus’ death and up to Pentecost. Hence the world was saved through its own corrupted process and for the first time produced the first SONS OF GOD…
– Philippe: Wrong again.
“The Kingdom of God” is on earth since Jesus’ birth to today.
Luke 17: 20-21 tells us that: “…being asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God would come, Jesus replied, The coming of the kingdom of God is not something that can be observed, nor will people say, ‘Here it is,’ or ‘There it is,’ because the kingdom of God is in your midst.” So, we know that the Kingdom of God is here from the moment the Lord was born….
But there is a caveat. You see, Christ was rejected… so in essence, true Christians “are” in the Kingdom of God “positionally” (that is how God sees us) or lets put it this way, currently we are in the Kingdom in a “spiritual” sense while the Kingdom’s King is absent. HE was rejected.
But in the future (Book of Revelation and according to the Prophets of old), the Kingdom of God will become a visible reality with our King, a “physical” Kingdom for 1000 years.
That also explains why, today, we preach the “Gospel of Grace” (believe in the Lord Jesus Christ and you shall be saved) but then, in the Future (following the Rapture), the believers there will be preaching the Gospel of the Kingdom (believe in the coming King).
One final note, the Kingdom is more related to Israel than to the Spouse of Christ. We (the Church) are in the Kingdom and at a future time we will be accompanying the Groom… but Israel will be the earthly center of the Kingdom…
Carmen quotes: Psalm 102:26 – “And as a vesture shalt thou change them, and they shall be changed: Human sins were not sins anymore!” In those most mysterious glorified days Jesus Christ remained on earth and up to Pentecost and Isaiah 1:18 “And then come, and accuse me, saith the Lord: if your sins be as scarlet, they shall be made as white as snow: and if they be red as crimson, they shall be white as wool”.
– Philippe: These verses are applicable to the Jews in a Future time. When they realize that they have rejected the King of the Kingdom, the true Messiah. Remember that the Psalmist or the Prophets knew nothing of the Spouse of Christ, the current true Christians. In Scriptures, one must always distinguish what differs. The “Spouse” are Christians only from Pentecost to the Rapture. The literal Kingdom is related mostly to Israel and the future system on earth under the rule of Christ.
– But Jesus NEVER slept with any woman. Period.
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Here is Carmel’s original post.
Yes, Jesus had sexual relation with Mary Magdalene, but after His resurrection, when He was the sole sovereign over all, and there was only one law in force JESUS’ AND AS HE SEES FIT, TILL PENTECOST; which for the first ever time He possessed the exact flesh and blood body of sexually reproductive related humans, once He gave His own divine body as a ransom in exchange for ours,hence
HE MADE HOLY, AND HIS, WHAT WAS SATANIC THROUGHOUT, NEVER MIND REGARDING SEX AND ITS REPRODUCTIVE PROCESS.
John 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all things to myself
He simply toppled Satan’s own sinful process and implanted His own actual SEED, on earth, of His genuine first fruits, without any interference from Satan who was locked in hell till Pentecost.
Plus that through the entire human process,in their own existing state, established God’s will, and God’s kingdom on earth in every conception occurred on earth from Jesus’ death and up to Pentecost.Hence the world was saved through its own corrupted process and for the first time produced the first
SONS OF GOD IN
SPIRIT, SOUL, AND FLESH.
Acts 10:15 And the voice spoke to him again the second time: That which God had CLEANED do not you call COMMON. 16 And this was done
THRICE;
Psalm 102:26……..And as a vesture shalt thou change them, and they shall be changed:
Human sins were not sins anymore! In those most mysterious glorified days Jesus Christ remained on earth and up to Pentecost:
FLESH COUNTED FOR NOTHING, and THE SPIRIT GAVE LIFE!
Isaiah 1:18 And then come, and accuse me, saith the Lord: if your sins be as scarlet, they shall be made as white as snow: and if they be red as crimson, they shall be white as wool.
We first need to decide whether sex is a sign of purity or sin ? Because if it is a thing that we all do in fact 97% of the total population do sex. If not then why there is debate that Jesus slept with anyone let him sleep he has his own desire. If sex is a sin then we should not forget that we all born with this heinous crime.
This is not an issue of “sex” (moral married sex is a pure gift of God) but it is relation to God the Son as Jesus of Nazareth. Christ cannot be compared to fallen humans. He did not come to earth to live the joys of humanity but to Glorify his Father and to save the world.